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    1. This layer of the heart allows it to act as a pump.
    a. epicardium
    b. myocardium
    c. pericardium
    d. endocardium

    2. This sling-like structure supports the heart.
    a. pericardium
    b. chordae tendineae
    c. myocardium
    d. endocardium

    3. This is the hardest working cardiac chamber and therefore has the thickest myocardium.
    a. right atrium
    b. right ventricle
    c. left atrium
    d. left ventricle

    4. The right ventricle pumps blood to the
    a. right atrium.
    b. left veins.
    c. pulmonary artery.
    d. aort a.

    5. The aorta receives blood from the
    a. right ventricle.
    b. pulmonary veins.
    c. pulmonary artery.
    d. left ventricle.

    6. Blood flows from the right atrium through this atrioventricular valve to the right ventricle.
    a. bicuspid
    b. mitral
    c. pulmonic
    d. tricuspid

    7. Which of the following structure â??seesâ? unoxygenated blood?
    a. aorta
    b. left ventricle
    c. pulmonary artery
    d. pulmonary veins

    8. Where does the cardiac action potential (cardiac impulse) normally originate?
    a. AV node
    b. Purkinje fibers
    c. ectopic focus
    d. SA node

    9. The pacemaker of the heart is located in the upper wall of the
    a. right atrium.
    b. right ventricle.
    c. left atrium.
    d. left ventricle.

    10. Referring to the ECG, the P wave represents
    a. atrial contraction.
    b. ventricular relaxation.
    c. atrial depolarization.
    d. atrial repolarization.

    11. Referring to the ECG, the QRS complex represents
    a. ventricular contraction.
    b. ventricular repolarization.
    c. ventricular relaxation.
    d. ventricular depolarization.

    12. This structure connects the cusps of the AV valves to the ventricles.
    a. Purkinje fibers
    b. AV node
    c. bundle of His
    d. chordae tendineae

    13. These conducting fibers rapidly spread the electrical signal throughout the ventricles.
    a. bundle of His
    b. Purkinje fibers
    c. SA node
    d. AV node

    14. Which of the following is least related to the mitral valve?
    a. left heart
    b. bicuspid
    c. semilunar
    d. chordae tendineae

    15. All of the following are electrical terms except
    a. sarcomere.
    b. depolarization.
    c. action potential.
    d. repolarization.

    16. Which of the following semilunar valves â??seesâ? oxygenated blood?
    a. mitral
    b. bicuspid
    c. aortic
    d. pulmonic

    17. Which layer of the heart has actin, myosin, and intercalated discs?
    a. myocardium
    b. endocardium
    c. epicardium
    d. pericardium

    18. The mitral and the bicuspid valves
    a. are semilunar valves.
    b. are both located on the right side of the heart.
    c. â??seeâ? only unoxygenated bloo d.
    d. are the same valves.

    19. The atrioventricular node (AV node)
    a. is the pacemaker of the heart.
    b. is located in the upper part of the right atrium.
    c. has a rate that is normally faster than the SA node.
    d. delays the electrical signal coming from the atria into the ventricles.

    20. Which of the following is an electrical event?
    a. â??lubb-duppâ?
    b. actin and myosin interaction
    c. murmur
    d. depolarization

    21. What are ventricles â??doingâ? during atrial contraction?
    a. pumping blood into the great vessels
    b. closing their AV valves
    c. relaxing
    d. opening their semilunar valves

    22. The Purkinje fibers
    a. open valves.
    b. pull on the cusps of the valves.
    c. conduct electrical signals throughout the ventricles.
    d. close valves.

    23. Which of the following is least descriptive of the myocardium?
    a. cardiac muscle, composed of actin and myosin arranged in sarcomeres
    b. thicker in the ventricles than the atria
    c. thicker in the left ventricle than the right ventricle
    d. thicker in the left atrium than the right ventricle

    24. Which group is incorrect?
    a. semilunar valves: pulmonic, aortic
    b. atrioventricular valves: tricuspid, bicuspid, mitral
    c. structures that carry oxygenated blood: pulmonary veins, left ventricle, aorta
    d. structures that carry unoxygenated blood: right ventricle, venae cavae, pulmonary veins

    25. Decreased blood flow through the coronary arteries is most likely to cause
    a. valve damage.
    b. pulmonary edem a.
    c. angina pectoris.
    d. bradycardi a.

    26. What is the â??main vein that drains the brainâ??
    a. carotid
    b. brachial
    c. jugular
    d. saphenous

    27. All arteries directly or indirectly emerge from this large artery.
    a. pulmonary
    b. aorta
    c. vena cava
    d. subclavian

    28. This artery carries unoxygenated bloo d.
    a. pulmonary
    b. aorta
    c. carotid
    d. jugular

    29. Trace the flow of blood: axillary vein > brachiocephalic vein > superior vena cava >
    a. inferior vena cava
    b. hepatic vein
    c. right atrium
    d. pulmonary veins

    30. This is a short artery that further divides into the gastric, splenic, and hepatic arteries.
    a. portal vein
    b. circle of Willis
    c. renal artery
    d. celiac trunk

    31. The subclavian veins
    a. receive blood from the inferior vena cav a.
    b. pump blood into the jugular veins.
    c. are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
    d. deliver blood to the superior vena cav a.

    32. Which characteristic of the arteriole allows it to function as a resistance vessel?
    a. its thin membrane.
    b. its porous membrane.
    c. its valves.
    d. its smooth muscle.

    33. Which condition is caused by defective valves in the lower leg veins?
    a. portal hypertension
    b. varicose veins
    c. absent pedal pulse
    d. ascites

    34. Which artery is most often used to evaluate the pulse?
    a. carotid
    b. brachial
    c. femoral
    d. radial

    35. What is the artery that supplies the head and neck region?
    a. jugular
    b. axillary
    c. portal
    d. carotid

    36. What is the largest vein in the body?
    a. circle of Willis
    b. vena cava
    c. portal vein
    d. jugular vein

    37. B and T cells are
    a. tonsils.
    b. lymphocytes.
    c. lymph nodes.
    d. antibodies.

    38. What is the effect of a massive release of histamine?
    a. jaundice
    b. anemia
    c. thrombosis
    d. wheezing and hypotension

    39. What is the name of a severe hypersensitivity reaction?
    a. cyanosis
    b. immunocompetence
    c. autoimmunity
    d. anaphylaxis

    40. You had measles as a chil d. Which of the following best describes your immunity to measles?
    a. artificially acquired active immunity
    b. artificially acquired passive immunity
    c. naturally acquired passive immunity
    d. naturally acquired active immunity

    41. Which of the following represents specific immunity?
    a. inflammation
    b. interferons
    c. natural killer cells
    d. B and T cells

    42. Phagocytosis
    a. is a function only of the T cell.
    b. is a form of specific immunity.
    c. does not require a specific antigen.
    d. is mediated through antibodies.

    43. IgE, IgA, IgM, and IgG are
    a. antigens.
    b. interferons.
    c. antibodies.
    d. complement proteins.

    44. This cell engages in cell-to-cell combat.
    a. erythrocyte
    b. platelet
    c. B cell
    d. T cell

    45. Which of the following are most associated with plasma cells and antibodies?
    a. neutrophils
    b. eosinophils
    c. B cells
    d. T cells

    46. Which of the following is (are) most related to antibody-mediated immunity?
    a. tears
    b. saliva
    c. sneezing
    d. plasma cells

    47. Which of the T cells destroys pathogens by punching holes in their cell membrane and secreting lymphokines?
    a. killer T cells
    b. helper T cells
    c. suppressor T cells
    d. memory T cells

    48. A vaccine
    a. is a gamma globulin.
    b. conveys active immunity.
    c. contains antibodies.
    d. is the same as an antitoxin.

    49. These T cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen, but allow for a more rapid response if the antigen is presented at a later time.
    a. killer T cells
    b. suppressor T cells
    c. thrombocytes
    d. memory T cells

    50. What is the term that refers to the level of antibodies in your blood?
    a. T cell count
    b. titer
    c. white blood cell count
    d. hematocrit

    51. Which of the following is most related to the placental transfer of antibodies from the mother to the fetus?
    a. naturally acquired active immunity
    b. naturally acquired passive immunity
    c. artificially acquired active immunity
    d. artificially acquired passive immunity

    52. What is the name of the toxin that has been altered so that it is harmless, yet still antigenic?
    a. vaccine
    b. antibody
    c. gamma globulin
    d. toxoid

    53. Which of the following is true of activation of mast cells?
    a. causes the release of epinephrine
    b. is necessary for T-cell activation
    c. prevents the development of anaphylaxis
    d. causes the release of histamine

    54. Which group is incorrect?
    a. mechanical barriers: skin, mucous membrane
    b. protective proteins: interferons, complement proteins
    c. nonspecific immunity: inflammation, NK cells, fever, T cells
    d. signs of inflammation: redness, heat, swelling, pain

    55. This structure is called the windpipe and is supported by rings of cartilage.
    a. bronchus
    b. alveolus
    c. pharynx
    d. trachea

    56. These respiratory tubes are primarily composed of smooth muscle and determine the flow of air to the alveoli.
    a. trachea
    b. bronchi
    c. bronchioles
    d. nares

    57. The trachea branches into the right and left
    a. alveoli.
    b. bronchi.
    c. nares.
    d. pulmonary arteries.

    58. The lungs are located within the
    a. mediastinum.
    b. dorsal cavity.
    c. spinal cavity.
    d. thoracic cavity.

    59. The diaphragm
    a. is smooth muscle that forms the bronchioles.
    b. is skeletal muscle.
    c. contracts in response to the firing of the vagus nerve.
    d. forms the outer lining of the lungs.

    60. The pleural membranes
    a. line the respiratory passages.
    b. form the bronchioles.
    c. are serous membranes.
    d. are confined to the mediastinum.

    61. When the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax,
    a. air moves out of the lungs.
    b. inhalation occurs.
    c. ventilation ceases.
    d. chest volume increases.

    62. Most oxygen is transported through the blood
    a. attached to hemoglobin.
    b. as bicarbonate.
    c. as surfactant.
    d. as lysozyme.

    63. Which of the following structures controls respirations?
    a. medulla oblongata
    b. basal ganglia
    c. postcentral gyrus
    d. limbic system

    64. The nares, nostrils, and nasal septum
    a. are concerned with gas exchange.
    b. are located in the upper respiratory tract.
    c. contain gustatory organs.
    d. are parts of the bronchial tree.

    65. The epiglottis
    a. is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
    b. prevents air from entering the esophagus.
    c. prevents food from entering the trache a.
    d. is the Adamâ??s apple.

    66. The trachea is
    a. â??the problemâ? in asthm a.
    b. the site of gas exchange.
    c. composed primarily of smooth muscle.
    d. a large airway that splits into two bronchi.

    67. Across which structure does most gas exchange occur?
    a. trachea
    b. bronchus
    c. bronchioles
    d. alveoli

    68. Which structure has the thinnest wall?
    a. trachea
    b. bronchi
    c. larynx
    d. alveoli

    69. This respiratory structure is distal to the trachea and proximal to the alveoli.
    a. pharynx
    b. larynx
    c. bronchus
    d. glottis

    70. Which of the following best describes the chewing of food?
    a. emulsification
    b. mechanical digestion
    c. peristalsis
    d. absorption

    71. Which of the following best describes why food moves through the digestive system from the mouth toward the anus?
    a. emulsification
    b. mastication
    c. defecation
    d. peristalsis

    72. Food moves through the esophagus to the
    a. cecum.
    b. duodenum.
    c. stomach.
    d. common bile duct.

    73. The fundus, body, and pylorus are parts of the
    a. small intestine.
    b. large intestine.
    c. biliary tree.
    d. stomach.

    74. A paralytic ileus is caused by a cessation of
    a. peristalsis.
    b. mastication.
    c. emulsification.
    d. deglutition.

    75. The appendix
    a. is located in the right upper quadrant.
    b. can rupture and cause peritonitis.
    c. is attached to the sigmoid colon.
    d. is located in the dorsal cavity.

    76. Which of the following form(s) the large intestine?
    a. duodenum, ileum, and jejunum
    b. colon
    c. fundus, body, and pylorus
    d. sphincter of Oddi and ampulla of Vater

    77. Bile is not found in this structure.
    a. cystic duct
    b. liver
    c. pancreas
    d. duodenum

    78. The common bile duct empties its contents into the
    a. stomach.
    b. base of the esophagus.
    c. duodenum.
    d. cecum.

    79. Which structure prevents gastric reflux?
    a. pyloric valve
    b. ileocecal valve
    c. lower esophageal sphincter
    d. anal sphincter

    80. The appendix is attached to this structure.
    a. cecum
    b. stomach
    c. pylorus
    d. sigmoid

    81. The elimination of gas that is produced during digestion and released from the anus is called
    a. flatulence.
    b. eructation.
    c. deglutition.
    d. mastication.

    82. Which enzyme is found in saliva?
    a. bile
    b. trypsin
    c. ptyalin
    d. lipase

    83. Which of the following produces amino acids as its end-product of digestion?
    a. bile
    b. lipase
    c. trypsin
    d. amylase

    84. Gingiva refers to the
    a. teeth.
    b. microvilli.
    c. gums.
    d. tongue.

    85. This organ produces bile and secretes it into the hepatic ducts.
    a. pancreas
    b. gallbladder
    c. spleen
    d. liver

    86. The wall of this structure secretes the disaccharidases.
    a. gallbladder
    b. duodenum
    c. pancreas
    d. stomach

    87. This is the chief organ of drug detoxification.
    a. pancreas
    b. cecum
    c. liver
    d. stomach

    88. The portal vein carries blood that is rich in digestive end-products to this organ.
    a. liver
    b. pancreas
    c. duodenum
    d. pylorus

    89. What is the tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?
    a. trachea
    b. esophagus
    c. pylorus
    d. ampulla of Vater

    90. What is the sphincter that allows food to enter the stomach from the esophagus?
    a. sphincter of Oddi
    b. pyloric sphincter
    c. lower esophageal sphincter
    d. pharyngoesophageal sphincter

    91. Which of the following structures allow(s) the stomach to expand?
    a. chief cells
    b. the appendix
    c. villi
    d. rugae

    92. This structure is located between the cecum and the transverse colon.
    a. appendix
    b. ileocecal valve
    c. sigmoid
    d. ascending colon

    93. Which structure contains the villi, microvilli, and brush border cells?
    a. stomach
    b. esophagus
    c. cecum
    d. duodenum

    94. The cecum, colon, and rectum are parts of this structure.
    a. hepatic portal system
    b. small intestine
    c. large intestine
    d. biliary tree

    95. Which statement is true?
    a. Cholecystokinin is an amylase.
    b. Secretin is stored in the gallbladder.
    c. Trypsin is secreted by the liver.
    d. Trypsin is an enzyme that digests protein.

    96. Amylases
    a. digest carbohydrates.
    b. emulsify fat.
    c. are gastric hormones.
    d. are proteolyti c.

    97. Which of the following is true of lipase?
    a. digests fats
    b. emulsifies fats
    c. synthesizes fats from fatty acids and glycerol
    d. stimulates the walls of the duodenum to secrete cholecystokinin

    98. Which of the following is most related to esophageal reflux?
    a. inguinal hernia
    b. hemorrhoids
    c. pyrosis
    d. appendicitis

    99. Peristalsis
    a. cannot be affected by drugs.
    b. is due to contraction of smooth muscle.
    c. only occurs within the small intestines.
    d. normally moves chyme into the biliary tree.

    100. An antacid drug exerts its effect in the
    a. buccal cavity.
    b. common bile duct.
    c. hepatic portal circulation.
    d. stomach.

    101. Which of the following is least related to fat digestion?
    a. trypsin
    b. bile
    c. cholecystokinin
    d. lipase

    102. Which group is incorrect?
    a. salivary glands: sublingual, submandibular, parotid
    b. small intestine: duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum
    c. digestive enzymes: amylase, protease, lipase
    d. large intestine: ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid

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    Solution Summary

    In this solution, I briefly discuss a variety of questions on Human Health and Disease.