The original question: "If a drug helps a person's behavior become more "normal," does that mean that a biochemical abnormality was the cause of the abnormal behavior in the first place?"© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com October 10, 2019, 5:31 am ad1c9bdddf
A drug intervention that suppresses abnormal behavior isn't necessarily a sure shot argument that the abnormal behavior was biochemically driven. One would have to rule out the confounding factors before being certain, especially if one's trying to argue neurology as the sole cause of abnormal behavior.
As a thought exercise, if a person is suffering from episodes of anxiety or public stage ...