1) From a scientific perspective, psychoanalysis or psychodynamic views have very little validity. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Justify your answer.
2) Why did Freudian psychoanalysis have such a seemingly dominant influence, not on U.S. psychology development, but on popular culture?
3) The humanistic form of psychology was a significant departure from the psychological viewpoints existing in the early- to mid-twentieth century in the U.S. Describe the main proponents of humanistic psychology. Then, compare and contrast their views with those of their contemporaries. In terms of application or from a clinical perspective, what would make humanistic psychology appealing?© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com March 5, 2021, 12:36 am ad1c9bdddf
1) I agree with this statement because Freud focused his studies on the unconscious mind. He believed that behavior is significantly influenced by the unconscious mind; however, proving this to be valid is extremely challenging because it is virtually impossible to obtain complete access to the unconscious state of the mind. The lack of empirical data and the fact that the samples were demographically restricted also proves invalidity in this theory.
2) Freud's theories of sexuality, memory, childhood, ad identity have influenced many areas of psychology today. Even though many areas have been proven invalid, these theories are often still used in a sense today. His theory and comparison of the conscious mind and unconscious mind to ...
This solution discusses the validity of Freud's Psychodynamic and psychoanalysis views, why his views appear to be dominant, and the humanistic form of psychology.