The asterisk implies a conditional usually indicated by an arrow. The & sign indicates "and".
In Aristotelian logic (X)(FX*GX) logically implies
(EX)(FX & GX). Is this true in predicate logic? If not, why not?
Please see the attached file for the complete solution.
Thanks for using BrainMass.
In Aristotelian logic ...
A statement in Aristotelian logic is found not to hold true in predicate logic.