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" I perchance herafter shall think meet/ To put an antic disposition on," says Hamlet (1.5.179) Let us leave aside the question of whether Hamlet might be truly insane. Let's just look at this pretence of 'gaga' craziness that he deliberately puts on. He obviously believes that behaving this way will benefit him somehow. He maintains this pretence until the very end. Track Hamlet's deliberate 'mad behaviour' - work out how he benefits and what it costs him.
Can you help me with an essay in MLA format
I need an opener, common ground, problem, why we should be interested, solution or thesis and gist of solution. then a preliminary argument before entering the body of the essay. I do not want a plot summary paper. I need to be able to summon together quotations and references from all over the play to make my points. The conclusion must contain larger significance/application, what is still not know, call for further research and the closer, quotation, fact coda.
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While there certainly exists scholarly debate over whether Hamlet was truly insane or only pretending, it is important to realize that the play was categorized as a tragedy; therefore, the virtuous character, Hamlet, had to have a flaw. Existing madness would not have been a flaw but pretending madness was. Understanding this helps us to follow and understand the play as a whole; also, understanding this characterization lends interest to the outcome for the reader. Throughout the play, Hamlet is shown as virtuous from the beginning scenes when he was speaking with Horatio about his mother's hasty marriage (1.ii) to when he was speaking with the ghost (1.v) to when he lamented about Ophelia's death (5.i) to the final scene with Laertes. The madness that Hamlet chose to portray is the only way he saw to stay in close proximity with the problem of dealing ...
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