Which is larger, (a) the probability of having a full house given that the first 2 cards you've dealt have the same denomination, or (b) the probability of having a full house given that there exist 2 cards of the same denomination in your hand? Set up an appropriate probability space for each experiment first, assuming an ordinary deck of 52 cards with 5 cards chosen at random for a hand.© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com October 10, 2019, 3:49 am ad1c9bdddf
I'm assuming that the situation in (a) is as follows: you're dealt the first two cards of the same denomination, say a pair of kings. Then you can get the full house in two ways: get one more ...
Set up an appropriate probability space for this case.