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    Bernoulli's Inequality

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    Suppose that -1 < r < 1. Prove that r^m -> 0 as m -> infinity.

    (I think you can write 1/r in the form 1+y, where y>0. Also I believe you can use the Bernoulli's inequality (1+y)^m >= 1+my for all m belonging to N(natural numbers)).

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    https://brainmass.com/math/basic-algebra/bernoullis-inequality-25385

    Solution Summary

    This is a proof involving Bernoulli's inequality. The steps are shown in the solution.

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