Suppose that -1 < r < 1. Prove that r^m -> 0 as m -> infinity.
(I think you can write 1/r in the form 1+y, where y>0. Also I believe you can use the Bernoulli's inequality (1+y)^m >= 1+my for all m belonging to N(natural numbers)).© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com March 4, 2021, 6:02 pm ad1c9bdddf
This is a proof involving Bernoulli's inequality. The steps are shown in the solution.