In chapter 1, verses 22,23, Matthew references a passage by Isaiah. In chapter 2, verse 15, Matthew references Hosea. Are these direct quotations? Would a Jewish person see Jesus as the fulfillment of these prophecies? Does Matthew follow proper hermeneutical rules in his references?© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com March 4, 2021, 11:47 pm ad1c9bdddf
Matthew 1: 22-23 paraphrases the prophet Isaiah as "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son and they shall call His name Immanuel." The actual quotation in Isaiah 7:14 states, "Behold, the virgin shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel." These words were spoken from God, through the mouth of Isaiah, to the rebellious King Ahaz who had rejected God (Is. 6) and was leading the Israelites in a war that God did not support (Is. 7:7,8). When told to ask for a sign from God, Ahaz refused, so the Lord himself ...
This solution discusses Matthew's use of passages in Isaiah and Hosea.