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    If $:G->G1 is a homomorphism, show that K = the set of g belonging to G given that $(g)=1 is a subgroup of G (called the kernel of $)

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    See attachment.

    If G is a group and K is its subgroup, that is K  G, it means that for any a; b  K a• b = c  K (where • is a symbol of the group operation: the group operation does ...

    Solution Summary

    This is a proof regarding homomorphisms and kernels.