Explore BrainMass

Explore BrainMass

One-to-one

This content was COPIED from BrainMass.com - View the original, and get the already-completed solution here!

If f o g are one-to-one, does it follow that g is one-to-one? Justify your answer.

© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com December 15, 2020, 1:10 pm ad1c9bdddf
https://brainmass.com/math/discrete-optimization/one-to-one-100244

Solution Preview

Please see the attached file for the complete solution.
Thanks for using BrainMass.

Suppose ...

Solution Summary

One-to-one is investigated.

$2.19

Purchase Solution

$2.19

Related BrainMass Content

One-To-One Functions

One to One and Inverse Functions

One-To-One Functions and Inverses

Sets : One-to-one Correspondence

Function Terminology of 'Onto' and 'One to One'

Functions - One-to-One Mappings

Let X be a non-empty set and f a mapping of X into itself. Show that f is one-to-one onto iff there exists a mapping g of X into itself such that fg = gf = iX. If there exists a mapping g with this property, then there is only one such mapping. Why?

Functions : Onto and One-to-one, Bijections and Function Composition 'f o g'

Let X and Y be non-empty sets and f a mapping of X into Y. Show that f is one-to-one iff there exists a mapping g of Y into X such that gf = iX.

Detailed Examples of Various One-to-one Relationships