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1. The Kimberly Corporation is a zero growth firm with an expected EBIT of $100,000 and a corporate tax rate of 30%. Kimberly uses $500,000 of 12.0% debt, and the cost of equity to an unlevered firm in the same risk class is 16.0%. What is the firm's cost of equity?
A) 21.0%
B) 23.3%
C) 25.9%
D) 28.8%
E) 32.0%

2. Leak Inc. forecasts the free cash flows (in millions) shown below. If the weighted average cost of capital is 11% and FCF is expected to grow at a rate of 5% after Year 2, what is the Year 0 value of operations, in millions? Assume that the ROIC is expected to remain constant in Year 2 and beyond (and do not make any half-year adjustments). Year: 1 2 Free cash flow -$50 $100
A) $1,456
B) $1,529
C) $1,606
D) $1,686
E) $1,770

3. Last year Godinho Corp. had $250 million of sales, and it had $75 million of fixed assets that were being operated at 80% of capacity. In millions, how large could sales have been if the company had operated at full capacity?
A) $312.5
B) $328.1
C) $344.5
D) $361.8
E) $379.8

4. Firm L has debt with a market value of $200,000 and a yield of 9%. The firm's equity has a market value of $300,000, its earnings are growing at a rate of 5%, and its tax rate is 40%. A similar firm with no debt has a cost of equity of 12%. Under the MM extension with growth, what is Firm L's cost of equity?
A) 11.4%
B) 12.0%
C) 12.6%
D) 13.3%
E) 14.0%

5. Which of the following should be considered when a company estimates the cash flows used to analyze a proposed project?
A) The new project is expected to reduce sales of one of the company's existing products by 5%.
B) Since the firm's director of capital budgeting spent some of her time last year to evaluate the new project, a portion of her salary should be charged to the project's initial cost.
C) The company has spent and expensed $1 million on R&D associated with the new project.
D) The company spent and expensed $10 million on a marketing study before its current analysis regarding whether to accept or reject the project.
E) The firm would borrow all the money used to finance the new project, and the interest on this debt would be $1.5 million per year.

6. The fact that long-term debt and common stock are raised infrequently and in large amounts lessens the need for the firm to forecast those accounts on a continual basis.a. Trueb. False
A) True
B) False

7. In general, firms should use their weighted average cost of capital (WACC) to evaluate capital budgeting projects because most projects are funded with general corporate funds, which come from a variety of sources. However, if the firm plans to use only debt or only equity to fund a particular project, it should use the after-tax cost of that specific type of capital to evaluate that project. a. Trueb. False
A) True
B) False

8. The Kimberly Corporation is a zero growth firm with an expected EBIT of $100,000 and a corporate tax rate of 30%. Kimberly uses $500,000 of 12.0% debt, and the cost of equity to an unlevered firm in the same risk class is 16.0%. What is the value of the firm according to MM with corporate taxes?
A) $475,875
B) $528,750
C) $587,500
D) $646,250
E) $710,875

9. Taussig Technologies is considering two potential projects, X and Y. In assessing the projects' risks, the company estimated the beta of each project versus both the company's other assets and the stock market, and it also conducted thorough scenario and simulated analyses. This research produced the following numbers: Project X Project Y Expected NPV $350,000 $350,000 Standard NPV) $100,000 $150,000 Project beta (vs. market) 1.4 0.8 Correlationdeviation ( of the project cash flows with cash flows from currently existing projects. Cash flows are not correlated with the cash flows from existing projects. Cash flows are highly correlated with the cash flows from existing projects. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Project X has more stand-alone risk than Project Y.
B) Project X has more corporate (or within-firm) risk than Project Y.
C) Project X has more market risk than Project Y.
D) Project X has the same level of corporate risk as Project Y.
E) Project X has less market risk than Project Y.

10. Akyol Corporation is undergoing a restructuring, and its free cash flows are expected to be unstable during the next few years. However, FCF is expected to be $50 million in Year 5, i.e., FCF at t=5 equals $50 million, and the FCF growth rate is expected to be constant at 6% beyond that point. If the weighted average cost of capital is 12%, what is the horizon value (in millions) at t=5?
A) $713
B) $757
C) $797
D) $839
E) $883

11. Suppose Leonard, Nixon, & Shull Corporation's projected free cash flow for next year is $100,000, and FCF is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6%. If the company's weighted average cost of capital is 11%, what is the value of its operations?
A) $1,714,750
B) $1,805,000
C) $1,900,000
D) $2,000,000
E) $2,100,000

12. A group of venture investors is considering putting money into Lemma Books, which wants to produce a new reader for electronic books. The variable cost per unit is estimated at $250, the sales price would be set at twice the VC/unit, fixed costs are estimated at $750,000, and the investors will put up the funds if the project is likely to have an operating income of $500,000 or more. What sales volume would be required in order to meet this profit goal?
A) 4,513
B) 4,750
C) 5,000
D) 5,250
E) 5,513

13. Bankston corporation forecasts that if all of its existing financial policies are adhered to, its proposed capital budget would be so large that it would have to issue new common stock. Since new stock has a higher cost than retained earnings, Bankston would like to avoid issuing new stock. Which of the following actions would reduce its need to issue new common stock?
A) Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.
B) Increase the dividend payout ratio for the upcoming year.
C) Increase the proposed capital budget.
D) Reduce the amount of short-term bank debt in order to increase the current ratio.
E) Reduce the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

14. The capital intensity ratio is generally defined as follows:
A) Sales divided by total assets, i.e., the total assets turnover ratio.
B) The percentage of liabilities that increase spontaneously as a percentage of sales.
C) The ratio of sales to current assets.
D) The ratio of current assets to sales.
E) The amount of assets required per dollar of sales, or A*/S0.

15. The Miller model begins with the MM model with taxes and then adds personal taxes.a. Trueb. False
A) True
B) False

16. Firms HD and LD are identical except for their level of debt and the interest rates they pay on debt--HD has more debt and pays a higher interest rate on that debt. Based on the data given below, what is the difference between the two firms' ROEs? Applicable to Both Firms Firm HD's Data Firm LD's Data Assets $200 Debt ratio 50% Debt ratio 30% EBIT $40 Interest rate 12% Interest rate 10% Tax rate 35%
A) 2.18%
B) 2.29%
C) 2.41%
D) 2.54%
E) 2.66%

17. Which of the following statements is correct?
A) One disadvantage of dividend reinvestment plans is that they increase transactions costs for investors who want to increase their ownership in the company.
B) One advantage of dividend reinvestment plans is that they enable investors to postpone paying taxes on the dividends credited to their account.
C) Stock repurchases can be used by a firm that wants to increase its debt ratio.
D) Stock repurchases make sense if a company expects to have a lot of profitable new projects to fund over the next few years, provided investors are aware of these investment opportunities.
E) One advantage of an open market dividend reinvestment plan is that it provides new equity capital and increases the shares outstanding.

18. Blease Inc. has a capital budget of $625,000, and it wants to maintain a target capital structure of 60% debt and 40% equity. The company forecasts a net income of $475,000. If it follows the residual dividend policy, what is its forecasted dividend payout ratio?
A) 40.61%
B) 42.75%
C) 45.00%
D) 47.37%
E) 49.74%

19. The phenomenon called "multiple internal rates of return" arises when two or more mutually exclusive projects that have different lives are being compared.a. Trueb. False
A) True
B) False

20. Clayton Industries is planning its operations for next year, and Ronnie Clayton, the CEO, wants you to forecast the firm's additional funds needed (AFN). Data for use in your forecast are shown below. Based on the AFN equation, what is the AFn for the coming year? Dollars are in millions. Last year's sales = S0 $350 Last year's accounts payable $40Sales growth rate = g 30% Last year's notes payable (to bank) $50Last year's total assets = A0 $500 Last year's accruals $30Last year's profit margin = M 5% Target payout ratio 60%
A) $102.8
B) $108.2
C) $113.9
D) $119.9
E) $125.9

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Solution Summary

The solution explains various multiple choice questions relating to cost of equity, full capacity, project cost, R&D and value of stock

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Amino acids multiple choice questions

Which statement is incorrect about the classification of amino acids?
a. Alanine and valine are neutral, nonpolar amino acids.
b. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids.
c. Tryptophan and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids.
d. Aspartic acid and aspargine are acidic amino acids.

Which of the following amino acids is the least water soluble at pH 7.0?
a. Tryptophan
b. Glutamic acid
c. Cysteine
d. Histidine

Which amino acid would migrate the furthest toward the anode (positive electrode) during paper electrophoresis at pH 7.0?
a. Aspartic acid
b. Alanine
c. Lysin
d. Glutamine

Which of the following functional groups, attached to an inert matrix, could function as a cation exchanger?
a. Diethylaminoethyl-
b. p-aminobenzyl-
c. Carboxymethyl-
d. Trimethylammonium-

Which of the following amino acids would make the best buffer at pH 4.5?
a. Histidine
b. Alanine
c. Glutamine
d. Aspartic acid

Which fact is incorrect about stereoisomers?
a. A diastereomer is a nonsuperimposable non-mirror image.
b. An enantiomer is a nonsuperimposible mirror image.
c. Diastereomers have different melting points.
d. Diastereomers rotate plane polarized light in equal but opposite direction.

Which statement is incorrect about L-isoleucine?
a. Its enantiomer is named O-isoleucine.
b. It contains a total of two asymmetric or chiral carbons.
c. It can also be named as (28, 38)-isoleucine using the (R,8) system.
d. Its diastereomer would be named O-alloisoleucine.

An isoelectric amino acid was dissolved in water and the resulting pH was approximately 7.6. What amino acid would possess this property?
a. Alanine
b. Glutamic acid
c. Histidine
d. Lysine

What volume of NaOH is required to adjust the solution of monosodium aspartate to pH 9.8?
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 6 ml or more

What volume of 2 N Hel is required to completely titrate the 4 mmol of monosodium aspartate?
a. 2 ml
b. 3ml
c. Aml
d. 6 ml or more

Which statement is correct about the peptide ala-ser?
a. Alanine is at the N-terminal of the peptide.
b. There are a total six atoms that lie in the plane of the peptide bond linking alanine to serine.
c. The alpha-carbon of alanine is sp3 hybridized d All the above are correct statements.

What is the product formed from the acid hydrolysis of a simple amide?
a. Acid & base
b. Aldehyde & alcohol
c. Acid & amine
d. Ester & alcohol

The complete acid hydrolysis of the peptide ala-gln-trp-ser would yield:
a. Ala, gin, trp, ser
b. Ala, glu, ser
c. Ala, glu, trp, ser
d. Ala. ser

Fibrous proteins, such as collagen, have which of the following properties?
a. Highly soluble in water
b. Their hydrophilic residues are directed into the interior of the protein
c. Exhibit enzymatic activity
d. Serve structural roles in the cell

Quaternary structure is associated with:
a. The overall shape of a polypeptide chain
b. The sum of the secondary and tertiary interactions
c. Simple proteins with only one subunit
d. The relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi-subunit protein.

The information needed to define the structure of a protein is essentially contained in:
a. Amino acid composition
b. Amino acid sequence
c. Secondary structure
d. Tertiary structure.

Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that contains two short polypeptide chains linked by two interstrand disulfide bonds. The most logical order of events to perform in order to sequence this protein would be:
A: The peptides are reduced with mercaptoethanol.
B: The peptides are sequenced using Edman chemistry .
C: The peptides are separated by chromatography techniques. 0: The peptides are alkylated with iodoacetamide.
a. A, D,C, B b.C,A, 0, B
c. C, B, A, 0
d. A, B, C, 0

Which statement is incorrect about the peptide val-asp-trp-asn-ser?
a. This peptide would show a strong absorption band at 280 nm.
b. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield two peptides.
c. To synthesize this peptide using the solid phase method of Merrifield, the amino acid directly attached to the resin would be serine.
d. After the second round of Edman chemistry using the reagent PITC, the PTH -amino acid residue released would be PTH-asn.

Which statement is incorrect about the reaction of the peptide ser-Iys-asp-trp-cys-metasn-phe-ala with the following reagents?
a. Reaction with cyanogens bromide would yield two peptides.
b. Reaction with trypsin would result in three peptides. The smallest of three peptides would have the highest pi of the three.
c. Reaciton with chymotrypsin would result in the peptides ser-Iys-asp & try-cys-met-Iysasn-phe-ala .
d. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield a different set of peptides that overlap those obtained with tryspsin

Determine the amino acid sequence of the following oligopeptide from the experimental data below:
The amino acid composition is found the be ala, Iys, phe, met, cys plus some
decompsition products.
2. The peptide has a molecular weight around 700 Da and absorbs at 280 nm.
3. Treatment with carboxypeptidase results in tryptophan and a peptide.
4. CNBr treatment yields a tetrapeptide and a dipeptide.
5. Trypsine digestion produces an amino acid and a pentapeptide with met on the amino end.
6. Chymotrypsin digestion yields a dipeptide and a tetrapeptide.
a. trp-Iys-met-cys-met-ala
b. Iys-met-cys-phe-ala-trp
c. trp-ala-phe-cys-met-Iys
d. Iys-ala-cys-phe-met -trp

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