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Genetics - Multiple Choice Questions and Answers.

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1. During the transcription of a certain protein, an extra cytosine was placed into a gene region, throwing off the correct amino acid sequence. What type of mutation occurred?
A. Transposon
B. Insertion
C. Base-pair substitution
D. Deletion

2. DNA requires which of the following?
A. Sunlight C. Protein synthase
B. Meiotic division D. Many enzymes

3. Why is there no duplication of the DNA between meiosis I and meiosis II?
A. To produce genetically identical daughter cells
B. To increase genetic variability
C. To reduce the chromosome number to haploid in the resulting daughter cells
D. The chromosomes duplicate twice during meiosis I.

4. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia is an example of
A. pleiotropy. C. epistasis.
B. heterozygous dominance. D. homozygous dominance.

5. What is the key difference between mitosis in plant cells and mitosis in animal cells?
A. The chromosomes aren't duplicated during interphase in plant cells.
B. Animal cell mitosis results in two daughter cells; plant mitosis produces three.
C. The two daughter cells formed in plant cell mitosis aren't genetically identical.
D. A cell plate is formed during mitosis in plant cells.


6. Which of the following genotypes causes Klinefelter syndrome?
A. XO C. XXY
B. XX D. XYY

7. In experiments with Drosophilia, _______ procedures have helped identify many gene functions.
A. pattern matching C. homeotic
B. knockout D. deleterious

8. When you notice that someone has unusually blue eyes, you've noticed their
A. phenotype. C. genotype.
B. allele. D. hybridization.

9. Why do researchers use DNA polymerase from a bacterium found in superheated water for PCR?
A. It's the only bacterium that contains this enzyme.
B. It can withstand the elevated temperatures that are required to unwind DNA.
C. DNA must go through high-temperature sterilization before PCA can occur.
D. These bacteria contain more DNA polymerase than any other species.

10. Why are there so many possible combinations of maternal and paternal traits in each generation of offspring?
A. Because there are the same number of chromosomes in each cell
B. Because of the random grabbing of chromosomes by the microtubules during metaphase I
C. Because of the biological components that chromosomes are made of
D. Because of the high frequency of viral invasion

11. Which of the following most contributes to a large variation of traits inherited by an offspring?
A. Production of polar bodies
B. A small gene pool
C. Homozygous dominance
D. Random shuffling of homologous chromosomes in gamete production

12. Which of the following strands of DNA would be the complement strand to C-C-A-T-C-G?
A. G-G-T-A-G-C C. A-A-C-G-A-T
B. G-G-A-T-G-C D. T-T-G-C-T-A

13. Why are there more males with color blindness than females?
A. The gene for color blindness is found on the Y chromosome.
B. The recessive gene is usually masked by another X chromosome in females.
C. Color blindness is an X-linked dominant trait.
D. All the sons of an affected male will have the disorder.

14. Which of the following would have the same base sequencing in their DNA?
A. A male parent and his male offspring
B. Siblings
C. Identical twins
D. A female parent and her offspring

15. Mitotic division produces two daughter cells with a _______ number of chromosomes, while meiosis produces four daughter cells with a _______ number of chromosomes.
A. haploid, diploid C. diploid, haploid
B. haploid, haploid D. diploid, diploid

16. A recessive allele t is responsible for a condition called distonia. A man who has this condition marries a woman who doesn't. One of their four children has the condition. What are the possible genotypes of the man and woman?
A. The father is Tt; the mother is TT. C. Both parents are tt.
B. The father is tt; the mother is TT. D. The father is tt; the mother is Tt.

17. Suppose a cell's membrane becomes more permeable than usual and loses some of its proteins. If the cytoskeleton shrinks and becomes disorganized, the cell is probably
A. cancerous.
B. ready to begin mitosis.
C. being engulfed by a phagocyte.
D. shutting down one of its X chromosomes as dosage compensation.

18. During meiosis, the chromatids become daughter chromosomes during which stage?
A. Prophase I C. Anaphase II
B. Metaphase II D. Telophase I

19. If you wanted to produce a certain protein in the laboratory, which of the following would be necessary for establishing the correct amino acid sequence?
A. Ribosomal proteins C. rRNA
B. mRNA D. Anticodons

20. The offspring of two parents that are heterozygous for a given trait have a _______
percent chance of being homozygous for that trait.
A. 0 C. 50
B. 25 D. 100

21. If a piece of DNA breaks off a chromosome and attaches itself to a nonhomologous chromosome at another location, what type of change has occurred?
A. Translocation C. Deletion
B. Duplication D. Inversion

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Solution Preview

1. During the transcription of a certain protein, an extra cytosine was placed into a gene region, throwing off the correct amino acid sequence. What type of mutation occurred?

B. Insertion

2. DNA requires which of the following?

D. Many enzymes

3. Why is there no duplication of the DNA between meiosis I and meiosis II?

C. To reduce the chromosome number to haploid in the resulting daughter cells

4. The genetic disorder sickle-cell anemia is an example of

A. pleiotropy

5. What is the key difference between mitosis in plant cells and mitosis in animal cells?

D. A cell plate is formed during mitosis in plant cells

6. Which of the following genotypes causes Klinefelter syndrome?

C. XXY

7. In experiments with Drosophilia, _______ ...

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Genetics multiple choice questions along with answers.

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Genetics: Multiple Choice Questions

Some questions are easier than others but I would like to double check they are right please. Would appreciate if someone could help, I need to submit this by Monday.

1. Eye color is an X-linked gene and red is dominant to white in Drosophila. If I mate a red eyes male with a white eyes female and I mate a white eyed male and a purebred red eyed female, the progeny from both crosses will be the same.
a. T b. F

2. Mary met her partner Bobby at a support group for families dealing with colorblindness. Mary and Bobby are unaffected but both have one bro who is affected. They have no knowledge of other family members. Which of the following is true?
a. There is a 100% probability that they will have an affected child
b. They might both be heterozygotes
c. Since neither one of them is affected they are not at rick of having an affected child
d. Bobby will not pass a mutatnt allele to either sons or daugters

3. Mendel did not see the phenomenon of gene linkage in his experiments because:
a. He used plants in his crosses
b. He studied alleles/genes that were far apart on the same chromo
c. He studies allels/genes that were in coupling
d. He studied alleles/genes that were dominant
e. All above

4. During this phase of cell cycle the sister chromatids are already separated
a. Meta II
b. G2 phase
c. Ana O
d. Prophase
e. Cytokinesis

5. If a chi- sq test od principle of segregation is "statistically significant" this means:
a. P-value for test is > 5%
b. Data shows a good fit to 1st principle
c. Calculated x2 statistic is < 0.05
d. Calculated x2 statistic must be smaller than critical-sq value corresponding to p=0.05
e. None

6. Genes A & B are 12 centimorgans apart. Suppose F1 is created by crossing AAbb and aaBB . If the F1 were testcrossed with a doubly recessive aabb, what % of offspring wld have recombinant phenotypes?
a. 1.2%
b. 2.4%
c. 6%
d. 12%
e. 24%

7. In a test-cross, the recombinant rate b/w genes l and b is 0.03. A third gene r had a recombination rate of 0.12 with b and a recombination rate of 0.15 with l. What is the order of the 3 genes on a chromosome?
a. l r b
b. r l b
c. r b l
d. b r l
e. cannot be determined

8. Uracil is a ______, adenosine is a ______
a. Base/nucleoside
b. Nucleotide/nucleoside
c. Nucleotide/base
d. Nucleoside/base

9. An accurate exmplanantion of pleiotrophy
a. Interaction of 2 genes to give a phenotype
b. Recombination
c. Meiosis
d. Mitosis
e. None

10. After screening a population of 3000 people for a given dominant genetic defect. 64 has the defect and 5 of these has 1 affected parent. What is the mutation frequency for this gene population?
a. 60/3000
b. 65/4000
c. 5/6000
d. 60/6000
e. none

11. compare the (wt) and mutant (mt) DNA seqs. What best describes the mutation.
wt (ATCGGATGTTA)
mt (GTCGTATGTTA)
a. Transversion/transition
b. Transition/ Transversion
c. Transition/ transition
d. Deamination/ transition
e. None

12. HOW ARE THE HFR AND F' STRAINS RELATED?
a. Hfr strain donates DNA to F- strain , converting to F' strain
b. When Hfr strain is used for transduction its called an F' strain
c. Hfr strains are converted into F' strains when the F factor and some flanking bacterial DNA exits the bacterial chromosome
d. An F' strain is a Hfr straing carrying an R plasmid
e. After DNA is transferred from Hfr strain to F- strain, the Hfr becomes a F' strain

13. How can viruses cause cancer?
a. They produce oxygen
b. Carry toxins
c. Always undergo lytic cycle
d. Can cause insertional mutagenesis
e. All of above

14. If 2 diff strains of bacteria undergo gene exchange when mixed, how wld you test for transformation?
a. Expose to strains to a virus
b. Expose to strains to DNA only
c. Repeat Griffiths exp
d. Repeat Meselson/Stahl exp
e. 2 of above

15. 1. Which of the following is true?
a. The anticodon of the tRNA and amino acid have no relationship
b. Any tRNA can be charged with any amino acid
c. tRNA binds to the codon in DNA
d. The anticodon must first get activated before charging of the tRNA
e. None of these are true

16. 2. In translation the mRNA must be activated by AMP.
a. True
b. False

17. 3. The Oc mutation in the lac operon is a recessive mutation.
a. True
b. False

18. 4. The C-value paradox means:
a. large genome-more genes
b. small genome-more genes
c. large genome-fewer genes
d. small genome-fewer genes
e. none of the above

19. Xeroderm Pigmentosum is associated with a mutant DNA repair sys
a. True
b. False

20. To be capable of transformation, bacteria must be in a physiological state called
a. Hfr
b. F+
c. F
d. F"
e. None

21. If the homozygouse recessive genotype occues with freq 0.04 in a population. What is the freq of recessive allele according to HW eq?
a. 0.2
b. 0.04
c. 0.0016
d. 0.08
e. unclear

22. An example of a missense mutation would be the insertion of a number of base/nucleotides which is not a multiple of 3
a. True
b. False

23. A mutation in a proto-oncogene is a dominant mutate
a. True
b. False

24. In a given pop of dogs, curly hair (h) recessive to wildtype straight hair (h+). The population of curly hair odgs is 50 and straight haired dogs is 150. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population according to HW eq
a. 50%/0.5
b. 25%/0.25
c. 75%/0.75
d. 10%/0.1
e. none

25. Tautomerization is an example of spontaneous mutation
a. True
b. False

26. Generation of AP site occurs during direct repair
a. True
b. False

27. Genetic drift is associated with large populations
a. True
b. False

28. What would one use PCR for
a. Obtain lrg qty of protein
b. Obtain lrg qty of DNA
c. Obtain lrg qty of RNA
d. 2 of above
e. none

29. Which of the following stops replication of DNA in euks?
a. End of chromosomes
b. Release factors
c. RHO protein
d. DNA ligase

30. Which of the following affects the rate of transcription of lac operon
a. CAP
b. RNA Pol III
c. Poly A Tails
d. Primase
e. None

31. The E.coli genomes codes for more genes than human genome
a. True
b. False

32. Prokarytotes rRNA genes are found in
a. Ribosomes
b. Nucleus
c. Nucleolus
d. Neucleoid
e. Cell wall

33. The nucleosome is
a. Found in nucleus
b. Composed of RNA
c. Composed of DNA and RNA
d. Found in cell way
e. None

34. Correct units of measuring DNA are ______ and ______ while units for NRA are
a. bp, nm/ bases
b. turns, nm / bp
c. S values, bases/ bp
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

35. A mutation that changes a codon from Trp into a stop codon will always be an example of
a. Framshift mutation
b. Missense mutation
c. Silent mutation
d. Neutral mutation
e. Nonsense mutation

36. How is the inducer of the lac op formed?
a. Actions of Lac Y
b. Activity of Lac A protein
c. Presence of mutant repressor protein
d. Presence of CAP
e. Activity of Lac Z protein

37. If glucose and lactose are present in the bacterial media the lac operon shld be turned on
a. True
b. False

38. The Oc mutation in the lac op is a recessive mutation
a. True
b. False

39. In Euks, transcription control is necessary because
a. Diff genes are present in diff cell types
b. Diff genes are transcribed in diff cell types
c. All genes are transcribe in all cell types
d. 2 of above
e. none

40. C-paradox means
a. Large genome- fewer genes
b. Small genome- fewer genes
c. Large genome- more genes
d. Small genome- more genes

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