Does the unequal distribution of property in existing societies violate Locke's requirement that there must be "enough and as good left in common for others"?© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com March 4, 2021, 5:53 pm ad1c9bdddf
Does the unequal distribution of property in existing societies violate Locke's requirement that there must be "enough and as good left in common for others"?
Locke's natural limits to property apply to both property in land and property in fruits. These limits include the limit of labour (only as much as one has mixed one's labour with, Second Treatise, 36), the limit of spoilage (only as much as will not spoil, 31) and the limit of the commons (only as much as leaves 'enough and as good' in common, 26, 33). Each of these natural limits is transcended or revised by the introduction of "a little piece of yellow metal" - money. (37)
The impact of money upon each of the natural limits to property cannot be fully explored here; it is sufficient to say that the transcendence of the limits to property by 'money' creates the conditions of possibility for radical property ...
The solution is a well thought out and comprehensive discussion on the proposition that unequal distribution of property is a direct violation of the Lockean ideals of equality & fair distribution of wealth (including ownership of goods & land) in modern day societies.