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Why was the French Empire ultimately so much less successful than either the Spanish or the British?

Why did the northern colonies develop a very different social and economic system based on small-scale farming and business?

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Why was the French Empire ultimately so much less successful than either the Spanish or the British?
<br>Inspired by Christopher Columbus' voyages, the leading European nations sent explorers to the New World to: seek a passage through the Americas to the Far East; secure gold, silver, and other valuable products; to establish claims to new lands; convert the natives to Christianity; and pave the way for trading posts and settlements. The Spanish were the first to immediately take advantage of the discoveries. Conquistadores such as Cortes and Pizzaro acquired fabulous treasures of gold and silver. All during the 16th century Spain worked on expanding its empire in Mexico, the Caribbean, Central and South America.
<br>The English at first had only sporadic contacts with the New World but this changed due to an increasingly hostile relationship with Spain. Remember this relationship deteriorated under the rule of Elizabeth I who firmly established the Anglican (Protestant) Church in England. Meanwhile Spain was devoutly Catholic. This was the reason why these two countries were bitter enemies and almost constantly at war. So to compete with the Spanish, England desired to find fabulous wealth, to establish ...

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