Multiple Choice Questions in relation to Cash Flow Estimation, Real options, Corporate Valuation and Bankrupcy.
When evaluating a new project, the firm should consider all of the following factors except:
a. Changes in working capital attributable to the project.
b. Previous expenditures associated with a market test to determine the feasibility of the
project, if the expenditures have been expensed for tax purposes.
c. The current market value of any equipment to be replaced.
d. The resulting difference in depreciation expense if the project involves replacement.
e. All of the statements above should be considered.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. The rate of depreciation will often affect operating cash flows, even though
depreciation is not a cash expense.
b. Corporations should fully account for sunk costs when making investment decisions.
c. Corporations should fully account for opportunity costs when making investment
d. All of the answers above are correct.
e. Answers a and c are correct.
Suppose the firm's WACC is stated in nominal terms, but the project's expected cash flows are expressed in real dollars. In this situation, other things held constant, the calculated NPV would
a. Be correct.
b. Be biased downward.
c. Be biased upward.
d. Possibly have a bias, but it could be upward or downward.
e. More information is needed; otherwise, we can make no reasonable statement.
Other things held constant, which of the following would increase the NPV of a project being considered?
a. A shift from MACRS to straight-line depreciation.
b. Making the initial investment in the first year rather than spreading it over the first 3
c. A decrease in the discount rate associated with the project.
d. The sale of the old machine in a replacement decision at a capital loss rather than at
e. An increase in required working capital.
A firm is considering the purchase of an asset whose risk is greater than the current risk of the firm, based on any method for assessing risk. In evaluating this asset, the decision maker should
a. Increase the IRR of the asset to reflect the greater risk.
b. Increase the NPV of the asset to reflect the greater risk.
c. Reject the asset, since its acceptance would increase the risk of the firm.
d. Ignore the risk differential if the asset to be accepted would comprise only a small
fraction of the total assets of the firm.
e. Increase the cost of capital used to evaluate the project to reflect the higher risk of the
Commodore Corporation is deciding whether it makes sense to invest in a project today, or to postpone this decision for one year. Which of the following statements best describes the issues that Commodore faces when considering this investment timing option?
a. The investment timing option does not affect the expected cash flows and should
therefore have no impact on the project's risk.
b. The more uncertainty about the project's future cash flows the more likely it is that
Commodore will go ahead with the project today.
c. If the project has a positive expected NPV today, this means that its expected NPV
will be even higher if it chooses to wait a year.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
e. None of the above statements is correct.
Which of the following are not real options?
a. The option to expand production if the product is successful.
b. The option to buy additional shares of stock if the stock price goes up.
c. The option to expand into a new geographic region.
d. The option to abandon a project.
e. The option to switch sources of fuel used in an industrial furnace.
Which of the following is most correct?
a. Real options change the size, but not the risk, of expected cash flows.
b. Real options change the risk, but not the size, of expected cash flows.
c. Real options usually change the cost of capital that should be used to discount the
expected cash flows.
d. Very few projects have real options.
e. Real options are less valuable when the underlying source of risk is high.
Clueless Corporation never considers abandonment options or growth options when estimating its optimal capital budget. What impact does this policy have on the company's optimal capital budget?
a. Its estimated capital budget is too small because it fails to consider abandonment and growth options.
b. Its estimated capital budget is too large because it fails to consider abandonment and growth options.
c. Failing to consider abandonment options makes the optimal capital budget too large, but failing to consider growth options makes the optimal capital budget too small, so it is unclear what impact this policy has on the overall capital budget.
d. Failing to consider abandonment options makes the optimal capital budget too small, but failing to consider growth options makes the optimal capital budget too large, so it is unclear what impact this policy has on the overall capital budget.
e. Neither abandonment nor growth options should have an effect on the company's optimal capital budget.
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to a hostile takeover?
a. Nonpecuniary benefits.
b. Targeted share repurchases.
c. Shareholder rights provision.
d. Restricted voting rights.
e. Poison pill.
Which of the following is not always a way to increase the value of a company?
a. Increase the growth rate of sales.
b. Increase the operating profitability (NOPAT/Sales).
c. Decrease the capital requirement (Capital/Sales).
d. Decrease the weighted average cost of capital.
e. Increase the expected return on invested capital.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a. The corporate valuation model can be used even for a company that does not pay
b. The corporate valuation model discounts free cash flows by the required return on
c. The corporate valuation model can be used to find the value of a division.
d. An important step in applying the corporate valuation model is forecasting the pro
forma financial statements.
e. Free cash flows must grow at a constant rate in order to find the horizon, or terminal,
Even if a firm's cash flow projections indicate that it will soon be unable to meet scheduled interest payments on its debt, bankruptcy will not begin until the firm actually defaults on a scheduled payment.
Chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Act is designed to do which of the following?
a. Provide safeguards against the withdrawal of assets by the owners of the bankrupt
b. Establish the rules of reorganization for firms with projected cash flows that
eventually will be sufficient to meet debt payments.
c. Allow insolvent debtors to discharge all of their obligations and to start over
unhampered by a burden of prior debt.
d. Answers a and b above.
e. Answers a and c above.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. The primary test of feasibility in a reorganization is whether every claimant agrees with the reorganization plan.
b. The basic doctrine of fairness states that all debt holders must be treated equally.
c. Since the primary issue in bankruptcy is to determine the sharing of losses between owners and creditors, the "public interest" is not a relevant concern.
d. While the firm is in bankruptcy, the existing management is always allowed to remain in control of the firm, though the court monitors its actions closely.
e. To a large extent, the decision to dissolve a firm through liquidation or to keep it alive through reorganization depends on a determination of the value of the firm if it is rehabilitated versus the value of its assets if they are sold off individually.
What would be the priority of the claims as to the distribution of assets in a liquidation under Chapter 7 of the Bankruptcy Act? 1) Trustees' costs to administer and operate the firm. 2) Common stockholders. 3) General, or unsecured, creditors. 4) Secured creditors who have claim to the proceeds from the sale of a specific property pledged for a mortgage. 5) Taxes due to federal and state governments.
a. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2
b. 5, 4, 1, 3, 2
c. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
d. 5, 1, 4, 2, 3
e. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
Which of the following statements is most correct?
a. Our bankruptcy laws were enacted in the 1800s, revised in the 1930s, and have remained unaltered since that time.
b. Federal bankruptcy law deals only with corporate bankruptcies. Municipal and personal bankruptcy are governed solely by state laws.
c. All bankruptcy petitions are filed by creditors seeking to protect their claims on firms in financial distress. Thus, all bankruptcy petitions are involuntary as viewed from the perspective of the firm's management.
d. Chapters 11 and 7 are the most important bankruptcy chapters for financial management purposes. If a reorganization plan cannot be worked out under Chapter 11, then the company will be liquidated as prescribed in Chapter 7 of the Act.
e. "Restructuring" a firm's debt can involve forgiving a certain portion of the debt but does not involve changing the debt's maturity or its contractual interest rate.
The solution explains some multiple choice questions relating to Cash Flow Estimation, Real options, Corporate Valuation and Bankrupcy
Amino acids multiple choice questions
Which statement is incorrect about the classification of amino acids?
a. Alanine and valine are neutral, nonpolar amino acids.
b. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids.
c. Tryptophan and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids.
d. Aspartic acid and aspargine are acidic amino acids.
Which of the following amino acids is the least water soluble at pH 7.0?
b. Glutamic acid
Which amino acid would migrate the furthest toward the anode (positive electrode) during paper electrophoresis at pH 7.0?
a. Aspartic acid
Which of the following functional groups, attached to an inert matrix, could function as a cation exchanger?
Which of the following amino acids would make the best buffer at pH 4.5?
d. Aspartic acid
Which fact is incorrect about stereoisomers?
a. A diastereomer is a nonsuperimposable non-mirror image.
b. An enantiomer is a nonsuperimposible mirror image.
c. Diastereomers have different melting points.
d. Diastereomers rotate plane polarized light in equal but opposite direction.
Which statement is incorrect about L-isoleucine?
a. Its enantiomer is named O-isoleucine.
b. It contains a total of two asymmetric or chiral carbons.
c. It can also be named as (28, 38)-isoleucine using the (R,8) system.
d. Its diastereomer would be named O-alloisoleucine.
An isoelectric amino acid was dissolved in water and the resulting pH was approximately 7.6. What amino acid would possess this property?
b. Glutamic acid
What volume of NaOH is required to adjust the solution of monosodium aspartate to pH 9.8?
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 6 ml or more
What volume of 2 N Hel is required to completely titrate the 4 mmol of monosodium aspartate?
a. 2 ml
d. 6 ml or more
Which statement is correct about the peptide ala-ser?
a. Alanine is at the N-terminal of the peptide.
b. There are a total six atoms that lie in the plane of the peptide bond linking alanine to serine.
c. The alpha-carbon of alanine is sp3 hybridized d All the above are correct statements.
What is the product formed from the acid hydrolysis of a simple amide?
a. Acid & base
b. Aldehyde & alcohol
c. Acid & amine
d. Ester & alcohol
The complete acid hydrolysis of the peptide ala-gln-trp-ser would yield:
a. Ala, gin, trp, ser
b. Ala, glu, ser
c. Ala, glu, trp, ser
d. Ala. ser
Fibrous proteins, such as collagen, have which of the following properties?
a. Highly soluble in water
b. Their hydrophilic residues are directed into the interior of the protein
c. Exhibit enzymatic activity
d. Serve structural roles in the cell
Quaternary structure is associated with:
a. The overall shape of a polypeptide chain
b. The sum of the secondary and tertiary interactions
c. Simple proteins with only one subunit
d. The relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi-subunit protein.
The information needed to define the structure of a protein is essentially contained in:
a. Amino acid composition
b. Amino acid sequence
c. Secondary structure
d. Tertiary structure.
Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that contains two short polypeptide chains linked by two interstrand disulfide bonds. The most logical order of events to perform in order to sequence this protein would be:
A: The peptides are reduced with mercaptoethanol.
B: The peptides are sequenced using Edman chemistry .
C: The peptides are separated by chromatography techniques. 0: The peptides are alkylated with iodoacetamide.
a. A, D,C, B b.C,A, 0, B
c. C, B, A, 0
d. A, B, C, 0
Which statement is incorrect about the peptide val-asp-trp-asn-ser?
a. This peptide would show a strong absorption band at 280 nm.
b. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield two peptides.
c. To synthesize this peptide using the solid phase method of Merrifield, the amino acid directly attached to the resin would be serine.
d. After the second round of Edman chemistry using the reagent PITC, the PTH -amino acid residue released would be PTH-asn.
Which statement is incorrect about the reaction of the peptide ser-Iys-asp-trp-cys-metasn-phe-ala with the following reagents?
a. Reaction with cyanogens bromide would yield two peptides.
b. Reaction with trypsin would result in three peptides. The smallest of three peptides would have the highest pi of the three.
c. Reaciton with chymotrypsin would result in the peptides ser-Iys-asp & try-cys-met-Iysasn-phe-ala .
d. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield a different set of peptides that overlap those obtained with tryspsin
Determine the amino acid sequence of the following oligopeptide from the experimental data below:
The amino acid composition is found the be ala, Iys, phe, met, cys plus some
2. The peptide has a molecular weight around 700 Da and absorbs at 280 nm.
3. Treatment with carboxypeptidase results in tryptophan and a peptide.
4. CNBr treatment yields a tetrapeptide and a dipeptide.
5. Trypsine digestion produces an amino acid and a pentapeptide with met on the amino end.
6. Chymotrypsin digestion yields a dipeptide and a tetrapeptide.
d. Iys-ala-cys-phe-met -trp