(See attached file for full problem description)
Question: I am suppose to figure out how $7,385 (from the year1999 to 2000) and $665 (for year2000 to 2001) is the change in net working capital is derived from the given information. The balance sheet below shows the data for 1998 and 1999. Information about future forecast for 2000 is that receivables, prepaid expenses, and other current assets should increase proportionately to sales, representing a combined 25 percent of future sales. (Sales for 2000 is $60,496) and as a result, accounts payable, accrued liabilities, and short-term notes payable should decline to 20 percent of future sales. These two percentages are the same for 2001 also.(Sales for 2001 are $73,805)
I don't know if this is relevant to this question but, additional information is: On December 31,1999 the company owed $62.46 million in long-term senior and subordinated debt, including short-term notes due At that time, the company had $22 million in bank credit facilities available, but it had not yet borrowed against these available facilities It also has $81,000 in cash on its balance sheet.
Taxes are 38.5 percent rate is expected/Cost of capital is 11.2 percent (again, I don't know if this is relevant to this particular question, but didn't want to leave it out just in case)
I thought the equation to figure out net working capital is: Net working capital=inventory+accts. receivable-accts payable,
and then take those results NWC for 1998 and substract from 1999 figure, and then proceed to find the change in NWC by using the %'s given for 2000 and then subtracting that, and then same for 2001?
Please help, don't understand how $7,385 (2000) and $665 (2001) was derived!
Could you also help me figure out how $8,167 (for 2000) and $9,964 (for 2001) for capital expenditures were derived?
Cash and Cash equivalents-$211 $81
Accounts Receivable-$5,776 $6,564
Pre-paid expenses and other assets-$334 $674
Deferred income taxes-$367 $386
Total Assets _______________ __________
for 1998 - $6,688 $7,705
Plant, property, and equipment 61,830 67,189
Other concurrent assets 1,246 1,312
Total noncurrent assets __________ _________
Total assets __________ __________
Current Portion of long-term debt-$4,589 $6,024
Accounts Payable- $5,489 $6,334
Acrued Liabilities $4,800 5,650
Total Current Liabilities 14,878 18,008
Long-term debt, less current portion-50,283 56,433
Total concurrent liabilities $50,283 $56,433
Total Liabilities ________ ___________
Total Shareholder's Equity $4,603 $1,765
Total liabilities and shareholder's
Equity __________ _________
The solution explains howo to calculate Net working capital, change in NWC, and capital expenditures given the balance for 2 years.
Capital Budgeting question for Corporate Finance Class
A U.S. firm, Vanger Inc., is considering expansion of its British subsidiary Albion plc. The cost of the expansion is 60 million British pounds, which must be expanded in the very near future (we will assume at t=0). This capital expenditure will be depreciated straight line for five years.
Revenue in the first year (aggregated at t=1) is 90 million pounds; revenue after that is assumed to grow at 9% per year for the next 5 years (thus revenues at t= 2,3,4,5 and 6 will at grow 9% from the previous years). After that the assumption is revenue will be constant. Expenses are assumed to be 80% of revenues each year for 6 years, and constant after that.
Net working capital is assumed to change with revenue; the changes in net working capital is assumed to be 7.5% of the change in forecasted revenue. Thus the change in t=0 NWC is equal to 0.075 times the difference in revenue at t=1 minus the revenue at t=0. And each year following works like that.
While firms uses six years of forecasted revenues and cash flows (t=1 to 6 plus t=0), the subsidiary project is assumed to continue on indefinitely. Vanger calculates terminal value by assuming cash flows beyond t=6 will equal t=6 earnings after taxes (EBIAT or NOPAT) forever. (Note NOPAT=EBIT-taxes). The no growth assumption implies that there will be no future changes in NWC. Thus terminal value of this project is estimated by applying the no-growth perpetuity formula to t=6 EBIAT.
Exhibit data below presents other economic and project specific data. Note that Vanger uses the government bond yield as its estimate of this risk-free rate.
Price inflation 3% 7%
Government Bond Yield 6%
Corporate tax rate 34% 35%
Market Risk Premium 8.60% na
Spot exchange rate ($/£) 1.70
Firm cost of debt 9.40%
Debt to Equity Ratio 0.4
Firm beta 0.9
When analyzing a subsidiary project, Vanger uses earned cash flows in its analysis (whether or not remitted). This means assume 100% repatriation of cash flows.
The firm assumes its corporate capital providers are home country investors, and thus Vanger calculates a home currency WACC and then converts into foreign WACC. It uses the higher of the two tax rates in its WACC calculations and in its cash flow calculations.
It is assumed that the country risks of investing in the UK (versus US) are low and therefore no other adjustment are made to the WACC. (That is, there is no risk premium added to discount rate for the foreign investment.)
1. Please calculate the home currency WACC and the foreign currency WACC. And calculate the project NPV using the home currency approach and the foreign currency approach.
This is a practice question given to us. I 'm having trouble doing it. Please help.
I need the cash flow table, the WACC calculation details, and details of any other calculation done to find the answers.
I have attached a WORD document with the same question if the figures here are not clear.View Full Posting Details