Is it morally sufficient for a U.S. company to comply with the laws of the foreign country in which it operates? Why or why not? What guidelines should a multinational use to determine a fair wage to its employees in a less developed country?© BrainMass Inc. brainmass.com June 4, 2020, 3:08 am ad1c9bdddf
It is indeed morally sufficient for a US company to comply with the laws of the foreign country in which it operates, due to the fact that it would be disrespectful for a US company to refuse to comply with the laws of the foreign country in which it operates, while his host country has allowed this company to conduct business within its borders and to profit from such business opportunities. In addition, it is the right thing ...