A large federal agency called a halt to all six of its largest IT projects, involving tens of millions of dollars, when a group of its field personnel joined together and proved to senior management that none of the six projects would have any impact on the citizens the agency was established to serve. How could this risk have been identified for these projects before they were selected? (should be at least two solid paragraphs). Also attached a pdf file to peruse if needed but please see two websites for reference.
Please use document website for reference:
This risk could have been identified for these projects before they were selected by senior management, by senior management conducting a thorough risk analysis of each of these projects separately in order to ascertain the probability of these projects being able to impact the citizens in the manner that they were designed, in the face of internal and external environmental ...
Correlation versus Risk
Investment reports often include correlations. Following a table of correlations among mutual funds, a reporter adds, "Two funds can have perfect correlation, yet different levels of risk. For example, Fund A and Fund B may be perfectly correlated, yet Fund A moves 20% whenever Fund B moves 10%." Write a brief explanation, for someone who knows no statistics, of how this can happen. Include a sketch to illustrate your explanation.
*I am very confused about how to explain that two funds can be perfectly correlated yet have different levels of risk.View Full Posting Details