1. Which of the following statements best represents what finance is about?
a. How political, social, and economic forces affect corporations
b. Maximizing profits
c. Creation and maintenance of economic wealth
d. Reducing risk
2. The goal of the firm should be:
a. Maximization of profits.
b. Maximization of shareholder wealth.
c. Maximization of consumer satisfaction.
d. Maximization of sales.
3. A firm's business risk is influenced by the:
a. competitive position of the firm within the industry.
b. demand characteristics of the firm's products.
c. financing structure of the firm.
d. both a and b.
e. all of the above.
4. The break-even model enables the manager of the firm to:
a. calculate the minimum price of common stock for certain situations.
b. set appropriate equilibrium thresholds.
c. determine the quantity of output that must be sold to cover all operating costs.
d. determine the optimal amount of debt financing to use.
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of variable costs?
c. Direct labor
d. Freight costs on products
6. Money market instruments include:
a. bankers' acceptances.
b. preferred stock.
c. corporate bonds.
d. common stock.
7. Capital market instruments include:
a. negotiable certificates of deposit.
b. corporate equities.
c. preferred stock.
d. both b and c.
e. all of the above.
8. Which of the following would increase the need for external equity?
a. Inadequate investment opportunities
b. A slow-down in economic growth
c. A reduction in corporate profits
d. A seasonal reduction in sales revenues
9. When public corporations decide to raise cash in the capital markets, what type of financing vehicle is most favored?
a. Retained earnings
b. Preferred stock
c. Common stock
d. Corporate bonds
10. Benefits of an organized security exchange include:
a. helping companies raise new capital.
b. establishing and publicizing fair security prices.
c. providing a continuous market.
d. all of the above.
11. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Current assets consist of cash, accounts receivable, inventory, and net plant, property, and
b. The quick ratio is a more restrictive measure of a firm's liquidity than the current ratio.
c. For the average firm, inventory is considered to be more "liquid" than accounts receivable.
d. A successful firm's current liabilities should always be greater than its current assets.
12. Given an accounts receivable turnover of 8 and annual credit sales of $362,000, the average
collection period (360-day year) is:
a. 90 days.
b. 45 days.
c. 75 days.
d. 60 days.
13. At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?
a. 6.5 years
b. 48 months
c. 9 years
d. 12 years
14. Determining how low inventory should be depleted before it is reordered is called the:
a. order point problem.
b. economic order quality.
c. stockout minimization issue.
d. ordering cost dilemma.
15. A financial lease typically has:
a. a term that is more than 75% of the useful life of the equipment.
b. the income tax advantage that the entire lease payment is a deductible expense.
c. high-tech equipment that might become obsolete rapidly.
d. a termination clause.
16. Which of the following is not an advantage of leasing for the lessee?
a. The lessor must bear the risk that the equipment will be obsolete even before it is returned at the end of the lease.
b. A lease usually has no restrictive financial covenants on the lessee; the primary duty is to make the lease payments on time.
c. The lessee must dispose of the equipment at the end of the lease.
d. An operating lease can lead to an income tax deduction of the entire lease payment.
17. The disadvantages of debt include all but which of the following?
a. Inflation will make the debt payments higher.
b. Indenture agreements can put restrictions on the borrower.
c. Too much debt might hurt the firm's stock price.
d. Principal and interest payments must be met.
18. In order to send your oldest child to law school when the time comes, you want to accumulate $40,000 at the end of 18 years. Assuming that your savings account will pay 6% compounded annually, how much would you have to deposit if you want to deposit one large lump sum today?
d) none of the above
19. An investment will pay $500 in three years, $700 in five years, and $1,000 in nine years. If the
opportunity rate is 6%, what is the present value of this investment?
20. You are planning to deposit $10,000 today into a bank account. Five years from today you expect to
withdraw $7,500. If the account pays 5% interest per year, how much will remain in the account eight
years from today?
As the financial manager for a manufacturing firm, you have constructed the following partial pro forma income statement for the next fiscal year.
Variable costs 5,600,000
Revenue before fixed costs 5,600,000
Fixed costs 2,400,000
Interest expenses 1,600,000
Earnings before taxes 1,600,000
Taxes (40%) 640,000
Net income $ 960,000
Using the information from the partial pro forma income statement above answer questions 21-25
21. What is the degree of operating leverage at this level of output?
22) What is the degree of financial leverage?
23. What is the degree of combined leverage?
24. What is the break-even point in sales dollars for the firm?
25. If the average unit cost is $8, what is the break-even point in
a) 500,000 units
b) 600,000 units
c) 650,000 units
d) 450,000 units
The solution explains various multiple choice questions relating to finance
Amino acids multiple choice questions
Which statement is incorrect about the classification of amino acids?
a. Alanine and valine are neutral, nonpolar amino acids.
b. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids.
c. Tryptophan and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids.
d. Aspartic acid and aspargine are acidic amino acids.
Which of the following amino acids is the least water soluble at pH 7.0?
b. Glutamic acid
Which amino acid would migrate the furthest toward the anode (positive electrode) during paper electrophoresis at pH 7.0?
a. Aspartic acid
Which of the following functional groups, attached to an inert matrix, could function as a cation exchanger?
Which of the following amino acids would make the best buffer at pH 4.5?
d. Aspartic acid
Which fact is incorrect about stereoisomers?
a. A diastereomer is a nonsuperimposable non-mirror image.
b. An enantiomer is a nonsuperimposible mirror image.
c. Diastereomers have different melting points.
d. Diastereomers rotate plane polarized light in equal but opposite direction.
Which statement is incorrect about L-isoleucine?
a. Its enantiomer is named O-isoleucine.
b. It contains a total of two asymmetric or chiral carbons.
c. It can also be named as (28, 38)-isoleucine using the (R,8) system.
d. Its diastereomer would be named O-alloisoleucine.
An isoelectric amino acid was dissolved in water and the resulting pH was approximately 7.6. What amino acid would possess this property?
b. Glutamic acid
What volume of NaOH is required to adjust the solution of monosodium aspartate to pH 9.8?
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 6 ml or more
What volume of 2 N Hel is required to completely titrate the 4 mmol of monosodium aspartate?
a. 2 ml
d. 6 ml or more
Which statement is correct about the peptide ala-ser?
a. Alanine is at the N-terminal of the peptide.
b. There are a total six atoms that lie in the plane of the peptide bond linking alanine to serine.
c. The alpha-carbon of alanine is sp3 hybridized d All the above are correct statements.
What is the product formed from the acid hydrolysis of a simple amide?
a. Acid & base
b. Aldehyde & alcohol
c. Acid & amine
d. Ester & alcohol
The complete acid hydrolysis of the peptide ala-gln-trp-ser would yield:
a. Ala, gin, trp, ser
b. Ala, glu, ser
c. Ala, glu, trp, ser
d. Ala. ser
Fibrous proteins, such as collagen, have which of the following properties?
a. Highly soluble in water
b. Their hydrophilic residues are directed into the interior of the protein
c. Exhibit enzymatic activity
d. Serve structural roles in the cell
Quaternary structure is associated with:
a. The overall shape of a polypeptide chain
b. The sum of the secondary and tertiary interactions
c. Simple proteins with only one subunit
d. The relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi-subunit protein.
The information needed to define the structure of a protein is essentially contained in:
a. Amino acid composition
b. Amino acid sequence
c. Secondary structure
d. Tertiary structure.
Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that contains two short polypeptide chains linked by two interstrand disulfide bonds. The most logical order of events to perform in order to sequence this protein would be:
A: The peptides are reduced with mercaptoethanol.
B: The peptides are sequenced using Edman chemistry .
C: The peptides are separated by chromatography techniques. 0: The peptides are alkylated with iodoacetamide.
a. A, D,C, B b.C,A, 0, B
c. C, B, A, 0
d. A, B, C, 0
Which statement is incorrect about the peptide val-asp-trp-asn-ser?
a. This peptide would show a strong absorption band at 280 nm.
b. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield two peptides.
c. To synthesize this peptide using the solid phase method of Merrifield, the amino acid directly attached to the resin would be serine.
d. After the second round of Edman chemistry using the reagent PITC, the PTH -amino acid residue released would be PTH-asn.
Which statement is incorrect about the reaction of the peptide ser-Iys-asp-trp-cys-metasn-phe-ala with the following reagents?
a. Reaction with cyanogens bromide would yield two peptides.
b. Reaction with trypsin would result in three peptides. The smallest of three peptides would have the highest pi of the three.
c. Reaciton with chymotrypsin would result in the peptides ser-Iys-asp & try-cys-met-Iysasn-phe-ala .
d. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield a different set of peptides that overlap those obtained with tryspsin
Determine the amino acid sequence of the following oligopeptide from the experimental data below:
The amino acid composition is found the be ala, Iys, phe, met, cys plus some
2. The peptide has a molecular weight around 700 Da and absorbs at 280 nm.
3. Treatment with carboxypeptidase results in tryptophan and a peptide.
4. CNBr treatment yields a tetrapeptide and a dipeptide.
5. Trypsine digestion produces an amino acid and a pentapeptide with met on the amino end.
6. Chymotrypsin digestion yields a dipeptide and a tetrapeptide.
d. Iys-ala-cys-phe-met -trp