The pricing objective of maximizing profits:
1 has not been affected by other, more socially focused concerns.
2 is to be implemented under any and all circumstances.
3 has not always been considered the underlying objective of any pricing policy.
4 must be considered when determining the price needed to increase market share.
To stay in business, a company must have a selling price that is:
1 acceptable to the customer.
2 able to recover the variable costs of production.
3 the highest in the marketplace.
4 equal to or lower than the company's costs per unit.
An internal issue to be considered when setting a price is:
1 whether the process is labor-intensive or automated.
2 the customer's preferences for quality versus price.
3 current prices of competing products or services.
4 the life of the product or service.
An external issue to be considered when setting a price is:
1 the variable costs of the product or service.
2 the desired rate of return.
3 the quality of materials and labor.
4 the number of competing products or services.
Fixed costs that change for activity outside the relevant range would include:
1 supervision costs.
2 electricity costs.
3 production supplies costs.
4 raw materials costs.
When gross margin pricing is used, the markup percentage includes:
1 desired profits plus total selling, general, and administrative expenses.
2 only the desired profit factor.
3 total costs and expenses.
4 desired profits plus total fixed production costs plus total selling, general, and administrative expenses.
The return on assets pricing method:
1 has very little appeal and support.
2 has a primary objective of earning a minimum rate of return on assets.
3 is a crude approach to pricing and should be used as a last resort.
4 replaces the desired rate of return used in cost-based pricing methods with a desired profit objective.
The pricing method that establishes selling prices based on a stipulated rate above total production costs is:
1 return on assets pricing.
2 target cost pricing.
3 gross margin pricing.
4 time and materials pricing.
A major advantage of the target costing approach to pricing is that target costing:
1 allows a company to analyze the potential profit of a product before spending money to produce the product.
2 is not dependent on customers' quality versus price decisions.
3 identifies unproductive assets.
4 anticipates the product's profitability midway through its life cycle.
Use of market transfer prices:
1 is the only acceptable approach in a free enterprise economy.
2 usually does not cause the selling division to ignore negotiating attempts by the buying division.
3 may cause an internal shortage of materials.
4 usually does not work against the operating objectives of the company as a whole.
The variables to be considered in the capital investment decision are:
1 expected life, estimated cash flow, and investment cost.
2 expected life, estimated cost, and projected capital budget.
3 estimated cash flow, investment cost, and corporate objectives.
4 economic conditions, economic policies, and corporate objectives.
Another term for the minimum rate of return is the:
1 payback rate.
2 discounted rate.
3 capital rate.
4 hurdle rate.
The after-tax amount is used for which of the following components of the cost of capital?
1 Cost of debt
2 Cost of common stock
3 Cost of preferred stock
4 Cost of retained earnings
Capital investment proposals should be ranked in decreasing order of:
1 length in years.
2 dollar amount required.
3 residual value expected.
4 rate of return.
Which of the following items is irrelevant to capital investment analysis?
1 Investment cost
2 Residual value
3 Carrying value
4 Net cash flows
The carrying value of a fixed asset is equal to its:
1 current disposal value.
2 current replacement cost.
3 original cost.
4 undepreciated balance.
Which of the following items can be described as a noncash expense?
3 Income taxes
The time value of money concept is given consideration in long-range investment decisions by:
1 assuming equal annual cash flow patterns.
2 assigning greater value to more immediate cash flows.
3 weighting cash flows with subjective probabilities.
4 investing only in short-term projects.
The net present value method of evaluating proposed investments:
1 discounts cash flows at the minimum rate of return.
2 ignores cash flows beyond the payback period.
3 applies only to mutually exclusive investment proposals.
4 measures a project's time-adjusted rate of return.
The payback period is defined as the amount of time in years for the sum of:
1 future net incomes to equal the original investment.
2 net future cash inflows to equal the original investment.
3 net present value of future cash inflows to equal the original investment.
4 net future cash outflows to equal the original investment.
The solution explains some multiple choice questions relating to pricing methods, objectives, relevant range, markup percent and market
Amino acids multiple choice questions
Which statement is incorrect about the classification of amino acids?
a. Alanine and valine are neutral, nonpolar amino acids.
b. Lysine and arginine are basic amino acids.
c. Tryptophan and phenylalanine are aromatic amino acids.
d. Aspartic acid and aspargine are acidic amino acids.
Which of the following amino acids is the least water soluble at pH 7.0?
b. Glutamic acid
Which amino acid would migrate the furthest toward the anode (positive electrode) during paper electrophoresis at pH 7.0?
a. Aspartic acid
Which of the following functional groups, attached to an inert matrix, could function as a cation exchanger?
Which of the following amino acids would make the best buffer at pH 4.5?
d. Aspartic acid
Which fact is incorrect about stereoisomers?
a. A diastereomer is a nonsuperimposable non-mirror image.
b. An enantiomer is a nonsuperimposible mirror image.
c. Diastereomers have different melting points.
d. Diastereomers rotate plane polarized light in equal but opposite direction.
Which statement is incorrect about L-isoleucine?
a. Its enantiomer is named O-isoleucine.
b. It contains a total of two asymmetric or chiral carbons.
c. It can also be named as (28, 38)-isoleucine using the (R,8) system.
d. Its diastereomer would be named O-alloisoleucine.
An isoelectric amino acid was dissolved in water and the resulting pH was approximately 7.6. What amino acid would possess this property?
b. Glutamic acid
What volume of NaOH is required to adjust the solution of monosodium aspartate to pH 9.8?
a. 1 ml
b. 2 ml
c. 3 ml
d. 6 ml or more
What volume of 2 N Hel is required to completely titrate the 4 mmol of monosodium aspartate?
a. 2 ml
d. 6 ml or more
Which statement is correct about the peptide ala-ser?
a. Alanine is at the N-terminal of the peptide.
b. There are a total six atoms that lie in the plane of the peptide bond linking alanine to serine.
c. The alpha-carbon of alanine is sp3 hybridized d All the above are correct statements.
What is the product formed from the acid hydrolysis of a simple amide?
a. Acid & base
b. Aldehyde & alcohol
c. Acid & amine
d. Ester & alcohol
The complete acid hydrolysis of the peptide ala-gln-trp-ser would yield:
a. Ala, gin, trp, ser
b. Ala, glu, ser
c. Ala, glu, trp, ser
d. Ala. ser
Fibrous proteins, such as collagen, have which of the following properties?
a. Highly soluble in water
b. Their hydrophilic residues are directed into the interior of the protein
c. Exhibit enzymatic activity
d. Serve structural roles in the cell
Quaternary structure is associated with:
a. The overall shape of a polypeptide chain
b. The sum of the secondary and tertiary interactions
c. Simple proteins with only one subunit
d. The relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi-subunit protein.
The information needed to define the structure of a protein is essentially contained in:
a. Amino acid composition
b. Amino acid sequence
c. Secondary structure
d. Tertiary structure.
Insulin is a polypeptide hormone that contains two short polypeptide chains linked by two interstrand disulfide bonds. The most logical order of events to perform in order to sequence this protein would be:
A: The peptides are reduced with mercaptoethanol.
B: The peptides are sequenced using Edman chemistry .
C: The peptides are separated by chromatography techniques. 0: The peptides are alkylated with iodoacetamide.
a. A, D,C, B b.C,A, 0, B
c. C, B, A, 0
d. A, B, C, 0
Which statement is incorrect about the peptide val-asp-trp-asn-ser?
a. This peptide would show a strong absorption band at 280 nm.
b. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield two peptides.
c. To synthesize this peptide using the solid phase method of Merrifield, the amino acid directly attached to the resin would be serine.
d. After the second round of Edman chemistry using the reagent PITC, the PTH -amino acid residue released would be PTH-asn.
Which statement is incorrect about the reaction of the peptide ser-Iys-asp-trp-cys-metasn-phe-ala with the following reagents?
a. Reaction with cyanogens bromide would yield two peptides.
b. Reaction with trypsin would result in three peptides. The smallest of three peptides would have the highest pi of the three.
c. Reaciton with chymotrypsin would result in the peptides ser-Iys-asp & try-cys-met-Iysasn-phe-ala .
d. Reaction with chymotrypsin would yield a different set of peptides that overlap those obtained with tryspsin
Determine the amino acid sequence of the following oligopeptide from the experimental data below:
The amino acid composition is found the be ala, Iys, phe, met, cys plus some
2. The peptide has a molecular weight around 700 Da and absorbs at 280 nm.
3. Treatment with carboxypeptidase results in tryptophan and a peptide.
4. CNBr treatment yields a tetrapeptide and a dipeptide.
5. Trypsine digestion produces an amino acid and a pentapeptide with met on the amino end.
6. Chymotrypsin digestion yields a dipeptide and a tetrapeptide.
d. Iys-ala-cys-phe-met -trp