This question is considered:
Why did early 20th century Americans conclude that Latin America was in the U.S.'s "sphere of influence?" How does the U.S. treat Latin American today?
Please allow some of my notes to help within this vast topic.
As you trace America's intervention in Latin America, you might claim how U.S. capitalism seemed to give birth there during the Monroe Doctrine in 1823. Because America deemed the whole Western Hemisphere as part of its "sphere of influence," they tended to give Europeans a ...
America's connection with 20th Century Latin America is debated.